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Download FREE Top 1000+ General Knowledge MCQs for Any Competitive Exam in PDF Format

Download FREE Top 1000+ General Knowledge MCQs for Any Competitive Exam in PDF Format
Download FREE Top 1000+ General Knowledge MCQs for Any Competitive Exam in PDF Format

250+ TOP MCQs on Lakes and Answers

1. Which is the largest lake in the world?
a) Lake Superior
b) Dal Lake
c) Caspian Sea
d) Wular Lake

Answer: c
Clarification: The famous Dal Lake and the Wular Lake are only 16 and 30 square kilometres in area respectively, whereas, the Caspian Sea, considered as the largest lake on the Earth, has an area 4,36,000 square kilometres.

2. Lakes can be free from salt because of the presence of __________
a) Evaporating agents
b) Salts are absent
c) Presence of a regular outlet from the lake
d) Enclosed area

Answer: c
Clarification: The lakes in which water is almost free from salts are called fresh water lakes. This becomes possible because of the presence of a regular outlet from the lake.

3. Wular lake in Kashmir receives water from which river?
a) Sutlej
b) Narmada
c) Brahmaputra
d) Jhelum

Answer: d
Clarification: The Wular Lake of Kashmir is fresh water; it receives river Jhelum at one end which drains out from the other end near Baramullah.

4. Which is the largest fresh water lake in the world?
a) Lake Superior
b) Dal Lake
c) Caspian Sea
d) Wular Lake

Answer: a
Clarification: Lake Superior is crescent shaped and is considered as the largest fresh-water lake, area wise (82,477 km2), whereas lake Baikul is considered as the deepest fresh-water lake with greatest volume (23,000 km2) of water in it.

5. Which of the following is not cause for saline lake presence of an outlet?
a) High content of salts
b) Absence of an outlet
c) Excessive rate of evaporation
d) Presence of an outlet

Answer: d
Clarification: Water of such lakes is characterized with a high content of salts. This becomes possible due to absence of an outlet and/or an excessive rate of evaporation, which leads to the heavy concentration of salts in the lake water.

6. Caspian sea is which type of lake?
a) Large lake
b) Fresh-water lake
c) Saline lake
d) Stream lake

Answer: c
Clarification: The biggest lake, the Caspian Sea, is a lake belonging saline type. In other cases, the salinity of the lake is easily attributed to the dry climate, which causes precipitation of salts that form layers along the bottom and banks of the lakes.

7. Pick the lake not belonging to salt water type?
a) Lake Geneva
b) Lake Urmia
c) Salt lake
d) Lake Chad

Answer: a
Clarification: Lake Geneva is a fresh water lake, whereas the rest are saline lakes.

8. Basins formed due to faulting, folding are called __________
a) Volcanic basins
b) Tectonic basins
c) Glacial basins
d) Ground water basins

Answer: b
Clarification: Many basins are formed due to faulting, folding and other crustal movements. Such basins aptly called Tectonic basins. Depression of a central block in between two parallel faults, graben is an ideal site for a lake.

9. Tectonic lake basins are of what nature?
a) Permanent
b) Temporary
c) Very short-lived
d) Semi-permanent

Answer: d
Clarification: Tectonic lake basins are commonly rectangular in outline and semi-permanent in nature.

10. What is the outline of volcanic basins commonly?
a) Rectangular
b) Circular
c) Ellipse
d) Tube-like

Answer: b
Clarification: Craters of extinct volcanoes are excellent depressions to serve as lake basins. Volcano created basins are commonly circular in outline.

11. The Dal and Wular lakes are __________
a) Volcanic basins
b) Glacial basins
c) Fluviatile basins
d) Groundwater basins

Answer: c
Clarification: The well-known Dal and Wular Lakes of Kashmir are believed to be detached and modified meander loops of the Jhelum. Similar lakes are also found in the delta of the Mississippi River.

12. The doline type of lakes are carved out of which rocks?
a) Mica
b) Granite
c) Limestone
d) Sandstone

Answer: c
Clarification: The doline type of lakes are simple circular depressions carved out of limestone by solution action. The Deep Lake of Florida is an example.

300 REAL TIME SSC GEOGRAPHY Interview Questions and Answers

SSC GEOGRAPHY Interview Questions :-

1 In which coal has the lowest proportion of volatile matter?
Anthracite

2 Where spice is mostly produced?
Kerala

3 Where Wheat is highly produced?
Punjab

4 Where is Tea highly produced?
Assam

5 Where is Coffee highly produced?
Karnataka

6 Where is Saffron highly produced?
jammu and kashmir

7 Where is the Koyna Project located?
In Maharastra, dist:Ratnagiri

8 Where is Sharavathy Project located?
Karnataka

9 Where is Balimela Project located?
State Orissa
Dist Malkangiri
Is This Answer Correct? 1 Yes 1 No

10 Where is Sabarigiri Project located?
Kerala
Is This Answer Correct? 1 Yes 0 No

11 Where is Ranghambor National Park is located?
Rajasthan

12 Where is Bandiur National Park is located?
Mysore (Karnataka)

13 Where is Gir National Park is located?
Gujarat

14 Where are the Saltora Ranges located?
Part of Karakoram ranges

15 On which river Sardar Sarovar Dam is built?
Narmada

16 Which type of erosion is responsible for formation of Chambal Ravines?
Gully erosion

17 The highest peak in india?
K2(GODWIN AUSTINE)

18 largest district in India?
Rajasthan

19 Where is ISRO Head Quartor? ISRO ka head quarter kaha hai?
IT IS IN BANGALORE

20 Koun si Nadi West (Paschim) me bahti Hai?
2 nadi west me bahti hai 1. Narmada, 2. Tapti

21 What are the hurbs and trees found in ann area of the destruction of natural vegetation in Pakistan?
Tulsi Banyan People etc

22 What is Indian union?
India is a union of states. neither a true federal nor pure unitary character…….. quasi federal

23 Which one of the rivers forms an estuary?
Narmada, Tapi.

24 why it snows in shimla and not in amritsar when both places have sub zero temperature in winters?
The reason is only shimla is situated in highest lattitued and as well as it stops the cold winds from himalayas. but in amritsar the cold winds are moving through.

25 Which river is the known as Ganga of south?
Godavari

26 Where is tarapur?
tarapur is in mumbai which is towards daman. After santacruz, vasai , palghar then tarapur.

100 REAL TIME UPSC POLTICAL SCIENCE Interview Questions and Answers

UPSC POLTICAL SCIENCE Interview Questions and Answers :-

 

1 What are schedules related to the Indian constitution? the meaning of these schedules?
Indian constitution has 12 schedules. originally we had 8 schedules. a schedule is something like annexure to the
constitution. most of the schedules has lists in it. for example 8th schedule has list of official languages in
india.

2 What is money bill?
money bill is related to the income and expanditure of the govt. this may a smallera mount to be passed for any
particular work or it may the budget of govt. At center it can be produced before loksabha only than in the rajaya
sabha

3 The Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by?
Dr. B R Ambedkar

4 What was the criteria to be elected in British parliament for Indians before 15 august1947?
Before leave India british are conditions for India they have devidend rule post.

5 Tell me constitutional name of India?
BHARAT

6 Which countrys independence day is same with India?
South Korea is the Country which got its official independence on the same day as India.

7 The first American President who visited India?
J.F.Kennedy

8 The Structure of Indian Constitution is?
Basically structure of indian constitution is of 4 types:
1.federal
2.unitary
3.rigid
4.partly unitary partly federal

9 How to encourage right person in politics or how a entrance exam can be conducted for politicians?
politics isdirect related to society then always select ecofriendly persons ,who belief that socialism is more
importance the religionism and who accept the change

10 Explain liberty and equality as in the preamble?
liberty and equlity are the two faces of a coin. in our preamble it is very clearly conveyed that there will be no
discrimination on the basis of caste, religion, race, sex, colour, place of birth etc…at the same time it also says that india is a democratic country where the representives of the people is directly chosen by the people through adult sufferage meaning, one person one vote. also the ratio of representatives as per population is another form of equality. however the dictinctions have been made for SC,ST,OBC,FEMALES etc. besides some facts this is positive discrimination.

11 What is work experience?
the work expiriance to have an knowlege of particular work
by teire daily working and for example
A…. working with the telicom company with the engeeniar
job effectivly the A… have an work ex[iriane of the
engeenir’s work

12 Explain what is skilled?
krambudh gyan anything

13 Tell me The Governor is appointed by the?
The President

14 What is Public opinion?
The opinion which emerges after analysis of different opinions and is accepted by a bulk of people.

15 What is Freedom of Press?
Freedom of speech and expression, which enable an individual to participate in public activities. The
phrase, “freedom of press” has not been used in Article 19, but freedom of expression includes freedom of press.
Reasonable restrictions can be imposed in the interest of public order, security of State, decency or morality.

16 How the importance of press has increased in recent years?
To make the people aware about their leaders

17 In India freedom of press is?
It is a part of fundamental Right. i.e. Right to Freedon &
Expression in Atr 19 of consttution of India

18 Which type of party system is implied in India?
Multi-party system

19 Explain socialism?
socialism the system of governance in which the major means of production is owned by the government and the government itself ensures the equal distribution of resources besides ensuring that wealth is not accumulated in the hands of few people.

20 What is main objective of Socialism?
different forms of socalism have different objectives, but most of them (not all) have distubuting money more equally between people.

21 To which socialism stands for?
Liberty as well as equality

22 Socialism is like a hat that has lost its shape because everybody wears it, who said it?
CEM Joad
Is This Answer Correct? 5 Yes 1 No

23 From which term the word socialism was derived?
An English work Socious

24 By whom the book Poverty of Philosophy was written?
karl marx

25 Workers of the world unite: you have nothing to lose except your chains, who said it?
Its a quote from The Communist Manifesto, ussually attributed to Marx and Engels (thgough Marx was the major
contributor)

26 What Fascism means?
A bundle of rods

27 Say something about Fascism?
It was formed to oppose Socialism, it believed in the theory of Corporate state and single leadership and
subordination of women and it has absolute faith in violent methods.

28 What is the main factor that contributed Fascism to rise in Italy
Following factors led to rise of fascism in Italy :-

1. Soaring unemployment
2. Rising price of articles of daily use.
3. The people were fed up with the various political
factions in Italy who were incessantly fighting amongst each other for their vested interests rather than providing
stability to the nation through a mature and responsible leadership.

These 3 factors along with feelings of nationalism and
injustice done to Italy during World War I vis-a-vis denying her share in territorial possessions (Treaty of Versailles clause) paved the path for rise of fascism in Italy. Mussolini’s dictatorial ideology provided a rallying point for the people who gave their full-fledged support ot him and threw their weight behind the fascist party.

All these factors helped Mussolini to effectively emerge as the sole powerful party in Italy. After coming to power, he systematically eliminated all those people/parties who opposed his views/ideas.

It needs to be noted that the rise of fascists in Italy was similar to that of Nazis in Germany as in both countries,
the socio-politico-economic situation was same and the Nazis and Fascists exploited these conditions to their favour and rose to power.

300+ TOP INTERNET Multiple Choice Questions and Answers Pdf

INTERNET Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. TCP/IP is a:

a. Network Hardware
b. Network Software
c. Protocol
d. None of these

2. OSI stands for:

a. Open System Interface
b. Out System Interface
c. Open System Interconnection
d. Out System Interconnection.

3. TCP/IP mainly used for:

a. File Transfer
b. Email
c. Remote Login Service
d. All of these

4. IPX/SPX used for:

a. Linux
b. Unix
c. Novel NetWare
d. Windows

5. NetBIOS is developed by:

a. Microsoft
b. IBM
c. Sun
d. None of these

6. Which IEEE standard is developed for CSMA/CD

a. IEEE 802.1
b. IEEE 802.2
c. IEEE 802.3
d. IEEE 802.4

7. Which is the part of Data Link Layer:

a. LLC
b. MAC
c. Both a and b
d. None of these

8. Which network architecture is developed by IBM?

a. System Network Architecture
b. Digital Network Architecture
c. Boroughs Network Architecture
d. Distributed Network Architecture

9. _______are hardware and software combinations that connect devices running different native protocols.

a. Protocols
b. Models
c. Gateways
d. Ports

10. Which is the lowest layer of TCP/IP model:

a. Host to Host Layer
b. Network Access Layers
c. Internet Layer
d. Application Layer

11. _____is an access channel for computers to exchange information.

a. Socket
b. Port
c. Gateways
d. Protocol

12. How many ports a computer may have:

a. 256
b. 128
c. 65535
d. 1024

13. Which is the type of port:

a. Serial
b. Parallel
c. AGP
d. All of these

14. Parallel port can transfer ____ bits of data at a time:

a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16

15. Parallel Port can not connect:

a. Printers
b. Scanners
c. Telephones
d. Monitors

16. In computer which range is in registered ports:

a. 0 to 1023
b. 1024 to 49151
c. 49151 to 65535
d. None of these

17. USB stands for:

a. United Serial Bus
b. Universal Serial By-Pass
c. Universal System Bus
d. Universal Serial Bus

18. Which is the fastest port for data transfer:

a. USB
b. Serial
c. Parallel
d. FireWire

19. Default port for HTTP:

a. 23
b. 80
c. 21
d. 25

20. Which is not the part of the UDP datagram:

a. Source Port
b. Destination Port
c. Checksum
d. None of these

21. Which is the type of socket:

a. Datagram
b. Stream
c. Raw
d. All of these

22. In which layer of OSI model IP is available:

a. Layer 1
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4

23. IP is defined in:

a. RFC 790
b. RFC 791
c. RFC 792
d. RFC 793

24. TTL stands for:

a. Time-To-Login
b. Time-To-Live
c. Transistor-Transistor-Live
d. None of these

25. Which protocol is used to report error message:

a. TCP
b. IP
c. ICMP
d. SMTP

26. Which is the error message reported by ICMP:

a. Time exceeded
b. Host unreachable
c. Echo request
d. All of these

27. What is the use of IP source routing:

a. Mapping the network drive
b. Troubleshooting
c. Performance
d. All of above

28. Which is the IP source routing method:

a. SSR
b. LSR
c. LLR
d. Both a and b

29. In a TCP header source and destination header contains:

a. 8 Bits
b. 16 Bits
c. 32 Bits
d. 128 Bits

30. Which is the false statement:

a. TCP enable dataflow for monitoring
b. It avoid network saturation
c. TCP makes communication between server and client.
d. In TCP/IP model Internet layer is closest to the user.

INTERNET Objective Questions

31. Which is not the application level protocol:

a. FTP
b. S/MIME
c. PGP
d. HTTP

32. RDP server runs on:

a. Computers
b. Switches
c. Routers
d. Servers

33. RDP client runs on:

a. Clients
b. Routers
c. Hosts
d. Switches

34. Which is the false statement:

a. Telnet is used for remote login.
b. FTP can transfer files between two hosts.
c. TFTP rely on TCP.
d. SMTP used to send mail message.

35. The default port for SMTP is:

a. 21
b. 23
c. 25
d. 80

36. SNMP used for:

a. Sending Message
b. Network management
c. Domain Management
d. Sending files

37. Which agency assign IPs:

a. IEEE
b. ANSI
c. ICANN
d. BSNL

38. Which is the component of IP:

a. Client Identifier
b. Network Identifier
c. Host Identifier
d. Both b and c

39. Which IP address is reserved for loop back or local host:

a. 192.168.0.0
b. 127.0.0.0
c. 127.0.0.1
d. None of these

40. Which class of IP is used in smaller organizations:

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

41. The size of the IPv4 is:

a. 16 Bits
b. 32 Bits
c. 64 Bits
d. 128 Bits

42. Which is the part of IP:

a. Netid
b. Subnetid
c. Hosted
d. All of these

43. The subnet mask 255.255.0.0 belongs to:

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

44. Who provide us internet:

a. TCP
b. ISP
c. FTP
d. HTTP

45. In which method we can connect to internet

a. Dial-up
b. SLIP
c. PPP
d. All of these

46. URL stands for:

a. Universal Resource Locator
b. Uniform Resource Locator
c. Uniform Radio Locator
d. None of these

47. Which is not the server side programming language:

a. JSP
b. ASP
c. JavaScript
d. PHP

48. The process of transferring files form a computer on the Internet to your computer is called ……

(a) downloding
(b) uploding
(c) FTP
(d) JPEG

49. In HTTPS ‘S’ is stands for:

a. Simple
b. Secured
c. Server
d. None of these

50. Which is not the requirement of internet:

a. Operating System
b. Dos
c. Web browser
d. Modem

51. The maximum speed of Modem is:

a. 32 Kbps
b. 56 Kbps
c. 64 Kbps
d. 128 Kbps

52. Which protocol is used for browsing website:

a. TCP
b. HTTP
c. FTP
d. TFTP

53. Which is not the browser:

a. Internet Explorer
b. Opera
c. Mozilla
d. Google

54. Which is not the search engine:

a. Altavista.com
b. Google.com
c. Facebook.com
d. Yahoo.com

55. Email stands for:

a. Easy mail
b. Electronic mail
c. Electric mail
d. None of these

56. Which is the chatting application:

a. Yahoo messenger
b. Google earth
c. You tube
d. None of these

57. Which service provide 3D view of earth:

a. Google Earth
b. Wikipedia
c. Skype
d. None of these

58. WWW uses …………… protocol.

a. FTP
b. HTTP
c. WBC
d. MTP

59. Website is a collection of ………

a. HTML documents
b. Graphic files
c. Lock key
d. All of these

60. For document exchange on network which of the following is not necessary?

a. Floppy
b. Telephone line
c. Connecetor
d. Satellite

300+ TOP Nuclear Power Plants Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Nuclear Power Plants Multiple Choice Questions with Answers :-

1. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparsion to a conventional thermal power plant is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less or mote depending on size
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

2. Isotopes of same elements have
(a) same atomic number and different masses
(b) same chemical properties but different atomic numbers
(c) different masses and different atomic numbers
(d) different chemical properties and same atomic numbers
(e) same chemical properties and same atomic numbers.
Ans: b

3. Atomic number of an element in the periodic table represents the numbers of
(a) protons in the nucleus
(b) electrons in me nucleus
(c) neutrons in the nucleus
(d) electrons in the atom
(e) neutrons in the atom.
Ans: a

4. The mass number of a substance represents the sum of total number of
(a) protons and neutrons in an atom
(b) protons and electrons in an atom
(c) neutrons and electrons in an atom
(d) protons and neutrons in a nucleus
(e) protons and electrons in a nucleus.
Ans: d

5. Which is not identical for an atom and an isotope
(a) mass number
(b) atomic number
(c) chemical properties
(d) position in periodic table
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

6. Amongst the following, the fissionable materials are
(a) U233andPu239
(b) U23iandPu233
(c) U235andPu235
(d) U238andPu239
(e) U243andPu235
Ans: a

6. A nuclear unit becoming critical means
(a) it is generating power to rated capacity
(b) it is capable of generating much more than rated capacity
(c) there is danger of nuclear spread
(d) chain reaction that causes automatic splitting of the fuel nuclei has been established
(e) it generates no heat.
Ans: d

7. Moderator in nuclear plants is used to
(a) reduce temperature
(b) extract heat from nuclear reaction
(c) control the reaction
(d) cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce their speed
(e) moderate the radioactive pollution.
Ans: d

8. The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is
(a) heavy water
(b) concrete and bricks
(c) graphite and concrete
(d) deutrium
(e) graphite.
Ans: e

9. The nuclear energy is measured as
(a) MeV
(b) curie
(c) farads
(d) MW
(e) kWhr.
Ans: a

10. The total energy released in fission of U is
(a) 5 MeV
(b) 10 MeV
(c) 199 MeV
(d) 168 MeV
(e) 11 MeV.
Ans: c

11. Breeder reactor has a conversion ratio of
(a) unity
(b) more than unity
(c) less than unity
(d) zero
(e) infinity.
Ans: b

12. Boiling water reactor employs
(a) boiler
(b) direct cycle of coolant system
(c) double circuit system of coolant cycle
(d) multi pass system
(e) single circuit system.
Ans: b

13. Fast breeder reactor uses
(a) boiler
(b) direct cycle of coolant system
(c) double circuit system of coolant cycle
(d) multi pass system
(e) single circuit system.
Ans: c

14. One gram of uranium will produce energy equivalent to approximately
(a) 1 tonne of high grade coal
(b) 4.5 tonnes of high grade coal
(c) 10 tonnes of high grade coal
(d) 100 tonnes of high grade coal
(e) 1000 tonnes of high grade coal.
Ans: b

15. Which of the following nuclear reactor does not need a heat exchanger for generation of steam
(a) gas cooled
(b) liquid metal cooled
(c) pressurised water
(d) boiling water
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

16. The number of isotopes of hydrogen are
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) U
(c) 3
(e) 0
Ans: c

17. The commonly used material for shielding is
(a) lead or concrete
(b) lead and tin
(c) graphite or cadmium
(d) thick galvanised sheets
(e) black carbon papers.
Ans: a

18. The main interest of shielding in nuclear reactor is protection against
(a) X-rays
(b) infra-red rays
(c) a, P, and y rays
(d) neutrons and gamma rays
(e) electrons.
Ans: d

19. Reflector in nuclear plants is used to
(a) return the neutrons back into the core
(b) shield the radioactivity completely
(c) check polllution
(d) conserve energy
(e) is not used.
Ans: a

20. The energy required to be applied to a radioactive nucleus for the emission of a neutron is
(a) 1 MeV
(b) 2.4 MeV
(c) 4.3 MeV
(d) 7.8 MeV
(e) 20 MeV.
Ans: d

21. Which of the following are ferrite materials
(a) U233andPu239
(b) U
(c) U238andPu239
(d) U238andTh239
(e) none of the above
Ans: b

22. Ferrite material is
(a) the most fissionable material
(b) the basic fuel for nuclear paints
(c) basic raw material for nuclear plants
(d) the material which absorbs neutrons and undergoes spontaneous changes leading to the formation of fissionable material
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

23. Enriched uranium is one in which
(a) %age of U235 has been artificially in-creased
(b) %age of U has been artificially increased
(c) %age of U234 has been artificially in-creased
(d) extra energy is pumped from outside
(e) all impurities have been removed.
Ans: a

24. Which of the following particles is the lightest
(a) nucleus
(b) electron
(c) proton
(d) meson
(e) neutron.
Ans: b

25. Which of the following is the heaviest
(a) neutron
(b) proton
(c) atom
(d) electron
(e) nucleus.
Ans: c

26. In fast breeder reactors
(a) any type of moderator can be used
(b) graphite is used as the moderator
(c) heavy water is used as the moderator
(d) moderator may or may not be used
(e) moderator is dispensed with.
Ans: e

27. In nuclear fission each neutron that causes fission releases
(a) no new neutron
(b) at least one new neutron
(c) one new neutron
(d) more than one new neutrons
(e) many-fold neutrons.
Ans: d

28. The breeding gain in case of thermal breeder reactor as compared to fast breeder reactor is
(a) same
(b) lower
(c) higher
(d) unity
(e) higher/lower depending on the size of reactor.
Ans: b

29. Gas cooled reactor uses following materials as moderator, and coolant
(a) graphite, C02
(b) graphite, air
(c) heavy water, C02
(d) lead, H2
(e) concrete, N2.
Ans: a

30. A nuclear fission produces energy of following order in MeV
(a) 20
(b) 200
(c) 2000
(d) 20,000
(e) 2 x 105.
Ans: b

31. The process by which a heavy nucleus is splitted into two light nuclei is known as
(a) splitting
(b) fission
(c) fusion
(d) disintegration
(e) chain reaction.
Ans: b

32. A nuclear fission is initiated when the critical energy as compared to neutron binding energy of the atoms is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

33. The fast breeder reactor uses the following moderator
(a) demineralised water
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) heavy water
(d) graphite
(e) no moderator is used.
Ans: e

34. The first unclear power plant in India is located at
(a) Kota
(b) Kalapakkam
(c) Tarapur
(d) Baraeilly
(e) Kerala.
Ans: c

35. The nuclear power plant at Tarapur has the following reactor
(a) fast breeder
(b) pressurised water
(c) boiling water
(d) sodium graphite
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

35. Boiling water reactor uses the following as moderator, coolant and working fluid
(a) ordinary fluid
(b) heavy water
(c) molten lead
(d) hydrogen gas
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

36. Ideally the neutron flux in reactor should be
(a) maximum in center and zero at side
(b) maximum at side and zero in center
(c) uniform throughout
(d) zero throughout
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

37. Enriched uranium may contain fissionable contents of the order of
(a) 1-99%
(b) 1-25%
(c) 1-50%
(d) 1-75%
(e) 1-90%.
Ans: a

38. U235 will undergo fission by
(a) high energy (fast) neutrons alone
(b) low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(c) either fast or slow neutrons
(d) medium energy neutrons
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

39. U238 will undergo fission by
(a) high energy (fast) neutrons alone
(b) low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(c) either fast or slow neutrons
(d) medium energy neutrons
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

40. A reactor capable of converting a ferrite material into fissile isotopes is called
(a) regenerative reactor
(b) fast breeder reactor
(c) breeder reactor
(d) boiling water reactor
(e) ferrite reactor.
Ans: a

Nuclear Power Plants Interview Questions and Answers pdf :-

41. Hydrogen is preferred as better coolant in comparison to C02 because former
(a) is lighter
(b) is inert
(c) has high specific heat
(d) is a good conductor
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c

42. Natural uranium is made up of
(a) 99.282% U238, 0.712% U235, 0.006% U234
(b) 99.282% U235, 0.712% U238, 0.06%’ U234
(c) 99.282% U234, 0.712% U238, 0.006% U235
(d) 99.282% U235, 0.712% U234, 0.006% U238
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

43. The risk of radioactive hazard is greatest in the turbine with following reactor
(a) pressurised water
(b) boiling water
(c) gas cooled
(d) liquid metal cooled
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b

44. Plutonium is produced
(a) as basic raw material
(b) by neutron irradiation of Uz
(c) by neutron irradiation of throium
(d) artificially
(e) in high capacity furnace.
Ans: b

45. Electron-volt is the unit of
(a) atomic power
(b) energy
(c) voltage
(d) radio activity
(e) there is no such unit.
Ans: b

46. Pick up the wrong statement
(a) In a heterogeneous or solid-fuel reactor, the fuel is mixed in a regular pattern within moderator.
(b) Slow or thermal neutrons have energy of the order or 0.025 eV
(c) Fast neutrons have energies above 1000 eV
(d) Fast reactor uses moderator
(e) Most serious drawback in using water as coolant in nuclear plants is its high vapour pressure.
Ans: d

47. The unit of radio-activity is
(a) electron-volt
(b) electron-ampere
(c) curie
(d) MeV
(e) AMU.
Ans: c

48. Pick up the wrong statement Fast breeder reactors
(a) operate at extremely high power densities.
(b) are liquid-metal cooled
(c) produce more fuel than they consume
(d) are unmoderated
(e) use water as coolant.
Ans: e

49. Uranium-233 is produced
(a) as basic raw material
(b) by neutron irradiation of Uz
(c) by neutron irradiation of thorium
(d) artificially
(e) in high capacity furnaces.
Ans: c

50. Plutonium-239 is produced
(a) as basic raw material
(b) by neutron irradiation of IT*
(c) by neutron irradiation of thorium
(d) artificially
(e) in high capacity furnaces.
Ans: b

51. Which of the following type of pump is used in liquid metal cooled reactor for circulation of liquid metal
(a) centrifugal
(b) axial
(c) reciprocation
(d) electromagnetic
(e) diaphragm.
Ans: d

52. Which of the following is the primary fuel
(a) Ulii
(b) U
(c) U238
(d) Pu:
(e) Pu
Ans: b

53. Which of the following is secondary fuel
(a) Th232andU238
(b) U233andPu239
(c) U233andPu238
Ans: c

54. A pressurised water reactor employs pressuriser for the following application
(a) to maintain constant pressure in primary circuit under varying load
(b) to Supply high pressure steam
(c) to increase pressure of water in primary circut
(d) to provide subcooled water at high pressure
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

55. Which of the following can be used as a coolant in nuclear plant
(a) light or heavy water
(b) molten lead
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) freon
(e) carbon tetrachloride.
Ans: a

56. Reactors for propulsion applications use
(a) natural uranium
(b) molten lead
(c) any form of uranium
(d) thorium
(e) plutonium.
Ans: b

57. The function of control rods in nuclear plants is to
(a) control temperature
(b) control readioactive pollution
(c) control absorption of neutron
(d) control fuel consumption
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

58. Breeder reactors employ liquid metal coolant because it
(a) acts as good moderator
(b) produces maximum steam
(c) transfers heat from core at a fast rate
(d) breeds neutrons
(e) increases rate of reaction in core.
Ans: c

59. In triggering fission, which type of neutrons are more effective
(a) fast
(b) slow
(c) in bulk
(d) static
(e) activated.
Ans: b

60. For economical operation of a nuclear plant
(a) used fuel should be reprocessed
(b) moderator should be used
(c) coolant should be employed
(d) control rods should be used
(e) reflector should be used.
Ans: a

61. The size of the reactor is said to be critical when
(a) chain reaction can be initiated
(b) it becomes uncontrollable
(c) it explodes
(d) it produces no power
(e) it produces tremendous power.
Ans: a

62. When a reactor becomes critical, then the production of neutrons is
(a) infinite
(b) zero
(c) exactly balanced by the loss of neutrons through leakage
(d) initiated
(e) stopped.
Ans: c

63. In the breeder reactors the generation of new fissionable atom is
(a) at the lower rate than the consumption
(b) at a higher rate than the constuption
(c) at an equal rate of the consumption
(d) depends on other considerations
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

64. The energy produced by a thermal reactor of same size as a breeder reactor is
(a) almost same
(b) slightly more
(c) slightly less
(d) much less
(e) much more.
Ans: d

65. Reactors designed for propulsion applications are designed for
(a) natural uranium
(b) enriched uranium
(c) pure uranium
(d) any type of uranium
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

66. Supertheated steam is generated in following reactor
(a) boiling water
(b) gas cooled
(c) pressurised water
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

67. Solid- fuel for nuclear reactions may be fabricated into various small shapes such as
(a) plates
(b) pallets
(c) pins
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

68. Which of the following is more appropriate for a moderator. One which
(a) does not absorb neutrons
(b) absorbs neutrons
(c) accelerates neutrons
(d) eats up neutrons
(e) regenerates neutrons.
Ans: a

69. A fission chain reaction in uranium can be developed by
(a) slowing down fast neutrons so that Uz fission continues by slow motion neutrons
(b) accelerating fast neutrons
(c) absorbing all neutrons
(d) using moderator
(e) enriching U235.
Ans: a

70. In triggering fission, the following types of neutrons are desirable
(a) fast moving
(b) slow moving
(c) critical neutrons
(d) neutrons at rest
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

71. Effective moderators are those materials which contain
(a) light weight atoms
(b) heavy weight atoms
(c) critical atoms
(d) zero weight atoms
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: a

72. In a fission process, maximum %age of energy is released as
(a) kinetic energy of neutrons
(b) kinetic energy of fission products
(c) instantaneous release of gamma rays
(d) gradual readioactive decay of fission products
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

73. The following present serious difficulty in designing reactor shield
(a) alpha particles
(b) beta particles
(c) thermal neutrons
(d) fast neutrons and gamma rays
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

74. In nuclear fission
(a) the original elements change into completely different elements
(b) the electrons of the element change
(c) the molecules rearrange themselves to form other molecules
(d) none of the above.
Ans: a

75. In order to have constant clain reaction to produce a constant rate of heat output, the value of ratio of the number of neutrons in one generation to the number of neutrons in the immediately preceding generation must be
(a) greater than 1.0
(b) less than 1.0
(c) equal to zero
(c) equal to 1.0
(e) equal to infinity.
Ans: d

76. A fast breeder reactor uses following as fuel
(a) enriched uranium
(b) plutonium
(c) thorium
(d) U235
(e) natrual uranium.
Ans: d

77. A boiling water reactor uses following as fuel
(a) enriched uranium
(b) plutonium
(c) thorium
(d) U
(e) natural uranium.
Ans: a

78. A fast breeder reactor
(a) uses graphite rods as moderator
(b) has powerful moderator
(c) has no moderator
(d) uses ferrite material as moderator
(e) uses pressurised water as moderator.
Ans: c

79. Artificial radioactive isotopes find application in
(a) power generation
(b) nucleonic devices
(c) nuclear fission
(d) nuclear fusion
(e) medical field.
Ans: e

80. A fast breeder reactor uses
(a) 90% U-235
(b) U-238
(c) U-235
(d) Pu-239
(e) U-239.
Ans: a

81. Half life of a radioactive isotope corresponds to the time required for half of the following to decay
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
(d) nulceus
(e) atom.
Ans: e

82. Pressurised water reactor isdesigned
(a) for boiling pi water in the core
(b) to use liquid sodium metal as coolant
(c) to use intermediate coolant
(d) to prevent the water coolant from boiling in the core
(e) to eliminate the coolant loop of the pressurised water.
Ans: d

83. The coolant used in boiling water reactor is
(a) Co2
(b) pressurised water
(c) mixture of water and steam
(d) liquid metal
(e) mercury.
Ans: c

84. In boiling water reactor, moderator is
(a) coolant itself
(b) ferrite rod
(c) graphite rod
(d) liquid sodium metal
(e) blanket of thorium.
Ans: a

85. The most practical fuel for a thermo-nuclear reactor, both from econocical and nuclear consideration is
(a) plutonium
(b) uranium
(c) deuterium
(d) thorium
(e) lithium.
Ans: c

86. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to conventional and nuclear consideration is
(a) higher cost of nuclear fuel
(b) high initial cost
(c) high heat rejection in condenser
(d) lower temperature and pressure condi-tions
(e) nuclear hazard risk.
Ans: d

87. The presence of reflector in nuclear power plants results in
(a) increased production of neutrons
(b) complete absorption of neutrons
(c) controlled production of neutrons
(d) decreased leakage of neutrons
(e) decrease of speed of neutrons.
Ans: d

88. The fuel needed, with reflector in nuclear power plant, in order to generate sufficient neutrons to sustain a chain reaction, would be
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) zero
(e) negative, i.e. fuel would be generated.
Ans: b

89. Each fission of U235 produces following number of fast neutrons per fission
(a) 1 neutron
(b) 1 — neutrons
(c) 1 – 2 neutrons
(d) 2 — neutrons
(e) infinite.
Ans: d


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